"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, 'Eli, Eli, lema
sabachthani?' that is, 'My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?' " (Matthew
27:46, ESV)
It is commonly believed by many religionists, that Jesus' statement indicates God
abandoned or turned his back on his Son, because Jesus while on the cross, took on
the sins of the whole world, and thereby became the greatest sinner the world has ever
known.
First, let us consider the following facts: (1) Jesus said he and the Father are one,
that is, harmonious in work and purpose. (Jno. 10:30; 5:17) Is it conceivable that the
Father would abandon or desert his own Son with whom he was working harmoniously
or as one? (2) Jesus said he came to do and always did the will of his Father.
(Jno. 5:19; 8:29) This shows he was perfectly obedient to his Father. Is it possible that
the Father would abandon one who obeyed him in every respect? (3) The Father always
heard the Son. (Jno. 11:42) This indicates that God always approved of him. Therefore
Jesus was righteous. Is it even in the realm of possibility that the Father would desert one
whom he approved and who was righteous? (4) The Son always pleased the Father.
(Jno. 8:29) This proves the Father and the Son were in perfect fellowship. The Father
was "well pleased" with the Son. (Mat. 17:5) Is it conceivable that the Father would
abandon one who was in perfect fellowship with him, and was well pleasing to him?
(5) The Son never sinned. Never committed a sinful act, nor did he ever entertain a
sinful thought. (Heb. 4:15; 1 Pet. 2:22-23) In view of the preceding facts, is it in
harmony with the scriptures to believe God deserted his sinless and beloved Son while
he was on the cross?
Second, while on the cross did Jesus cease being "one" with the Father? Did he stop
doing the will of the Father and become a disobedient Son? Did he become unrighteous
and thereby meet God's disapproval? Did he stop pleasing God the Father and
consequently cease having perfect fellowship with him? Did the Son of the living God
who never sinned, suddenly abandon his life of perfect holiness, and become the greatest
sinner the world has ever known? The answer to the questions above is absolutely not,
even to the bane of Calvinists.
So, what is the significance of the Lord's cry, "My God, my God, why have you
forsaken me?" Jesus quotes Psalm 22:1, a psalm for deliverance. It reads, "My God, my
God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far from saving me, from the words
of my groaning?" (ESV) In this psalm David cries out to God for deliverance from scornful
people (v.6); from mockers (v.7); from the bulls of Bashan, an idiom meaning the strong
ones of Bashan (v.12); from dogs, a metaphor meaning gang of evil doers, moral
reprobates (v.16); and from the lion, used metaphorically of those who mercilessly
destroy (v. 21, cf. v.13)
We may be assured that Yahweh had not actually forsaken David because David says in
the same psalm, "You who fear Yahweh, praise him! All you offspring of Jacob, glorify him,
and stand in awe of him, all you offspring of Israel! For he has not despised or abhorred
the affliction of the afflicted, and he has not hidden his face from him, but has heard,
when he cried to him." (verses 23-24, ESV, all emphasis mine, RD)
If indeed neither David nor Jesus had been actually forsaken by Yahweh, then what is
the significance of the question, "Why have you forsaken me?" It would seem to those
who were onlookers of both the persecution of David and the crucifixion of Jesus Christ,
that God had abandoned David and Jesus because he allowed their enemies to
carry out their evil schemes. The first line of Psalm 22:1 holds the clue to the interpretation.
"Why are you so far from saving me, from the words of my groaning?" As Yahweh
allowed David to suffer, so he allowed Jesus to be delivered up and suffer at the hands
of lawless men. (Acts 2:23) It is not as though Jesus was asking the Father for an answer
to the question. Both Jesus and the Father knew why Jesus would die (Jno. 1:29;
Mat. 20:28; 26:28) There is very likely an element of rhetorical effect in the words Jesus
speaks; "Why have you forsaken me?" You have given me up to death that people might
live.
R. Daly
Copyright 2012
sabachthani?' that is, 'My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?' " (Matthew
27:46, ESV)
It is commonly believed by many religionists, that Jesus' statement indicates God
abandoned or turned his back on his Son, because Jesus while on the cross, took on
the sins of the whole world, and thereby became the greatest sinner the world has ever
known.
First, let us consider the following facts: (1) Jesus said he and the Father are one,
that is, harmonious in work and purpose. (Jno. 10:30; 5:17) Is it conceivable that the
Father would abandon or desert his own Son with whom he was working harmoniously
or as one? (2) Jesus said he came to do and always did the will of his Father.
(Jno. 5:19; 8:29) This shows he was perfectly obedient to his Father. Is it possible that
the Father would abandon one who obeyed him in every respect? (3) The Father always
heard the Son. (Jno. 11:42) This indicates that God always approved of him. Therefore
Jesus was righteous. Is it even in the realm of possibility that the Father would desert one
whom he approved and who was righteous? (4) The Son always pleased the Father.
(Jno. 8:29) This proves the Father and the Son were in perfect fellowship. The Father
was "well pleased" with the Son. (Mat. 17:5) Is it conceivable that the Father would
abandon one who was in perfect fellowship with him, and was well pleasing to him?
(5) The Son never sinned. Never committed a sinful act, nor did he ever entertain a
sinful thought. (Heb. 4:15; 1 Pet. 2:22-23) In view of the preceding facts, is it in
harmony with the scriptures to believe God deserted his sinless and beloved Son while
he was on the cross?
Second, while on the cross did Jesus cease being "one" with the Father? Did he stop
doing the will of the Father and become a disobedient Son? Did he become unrighteous
and thereby meet God's disapproval? Did he stop pleasing God the Father and
consequently cease having perfect fellowship with him? Did the Son of the living God
who never sinned, suddenly abandon his life of perfect holiness, and become the greatest
sinner the world has ever known? The answer to the questions above is absolutely not,
even to the bane of Calvinists.
So, what is the significance of the Lord's cry, "My God, my God, why have you
forsaken me?" Jesus quotes Psalm 22:1, a psalm for deliverance. It reads, "My God, my
God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far from saving me, from the words
of my groaning?" (ESV) In this psalm David cries out to God for deliverance from scornful
people (v.6); from mockers (v.7); from the bulls of Bashan, an idiom meaning the strong
ones of Bashan (v.12); from dogs, a metaphor meaning gang of evil doers, moral
reprobates (v.16); and from the lion, used metaphorically of those who mercilessly
destroy (v. 21, cf. v.13)
We may be assured that Yahweh had not actually forsaken David because David says in
the same psalm, "You who fear Yahweh, praise him! All you offspring of Jacob, glorify him,
and stand in awe of him, all you offspring of Israel! For he has not despised or abhorred
the affliction of the afflicted, and he has not hidden his face from him, but has heard,
when he cried to him." (verses 23-24, ESV, all emphasis mine, RD)
If indeed neither David nor Jesus had been actually forsaken by Yahweh, then what is
the significance of the question, "Why have you forsaken me?" It would seem to those
who were onlookers of both the persecution of David and the crucifixion of Jesus Christ,
that God had abandoned David and Jesus because he allowed their enemies to
carry out their evil schemes. The first line of Psalm 22:1 holds the clue to the interpretation.
"Why are you so far from saving me, from the words of my groaning?" As Yahweh
allowed David to suffer, so he allowed Jesus to be delivered up and suffer at the hands
of lawless men. (Acts 2:23) It is not as though Jesus was asking the Father for an answer
to the question. Both Jesus and the Father knew why Jesus would die (Jno. 1:29;
Mat. 20:28; 26:28) There is very likely an element of rhetorical effect in the words Jesus
speaks; "Why have you forsaken me?" You have given me up to death that people might
live.
R. Daly
Copyright 2012
